Software Project Management (S2-14_SSZG622) EC1 - Quiz-3

The level of review formality is determined by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Number of findings
b. Knowledge of the reviewer
c. Preparation and structure of review
d. Size of the project
Ans: c

Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended to be performed by an independent SQA group?
Select one:
a. serve as the test team for software produced
b. prepare SQA plan for the project
c. review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
d. report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
Ans: a

Which of the following is not an example of a business process?
Select one:
a. hiring an employee
b. purchasing services
c. testing software
d. designing a new product
Ans: c

Effective software project management focuses on
Select one:
a. people, performance, payoff, product
b. people, product, performance, process
c. people, process, payoff, product
d. people, product, process, project
Ans: d

The tendency for the project deliverables to expand over time-usually by changing requirements, specifications, and priorities-is called
Select one:
a. Project bloat
b. Scope creep
c. Project add-on
d. Scope enhancement
Ans: b

At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to
Select one:
a. recommend role changes in team
b. reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
c. accept the work product without modification
d. modify the work product and continue the review
Ans: c

Which of the following is likely to be the most expensive cost of quality?
Select one:
a. Appraisal costs
b. External failure costs
c. Prevention costs
d. Internal failure costs
How much effort is typically expended by a software organization on software maintenance?
Select one:
a. 40 percent
b. 60 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 80 percent
Ans: b

Which these are reasons for using technical product measures during software development?
Select one:
a. large body of scientific evidence supports their use
b. provide software engineers with an objective mechanism for assessing software quality
c. they help capturing client requirements clearly
d. they allow all quality software quality information to be expressed unambiguously as a single number
Ans: b

Empirical estimation models are typically based on
Select one:
a. refinement of expected value estimation
b. trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
c. expert judgement based on past project experiences
d. regression model derived from historical project data
Ans: d

Which of the following activities is not part of the software reengineering process model?
Select one:
a. reverse engineering
b. inventory analysis
c. prototyping
d. forward engineering
Ans: c

Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways
Select one:
a. likelihood and impact
b. likelihood and cost
c. likelihood and exposure
d. likelihood and consequences
Ans: a

Software risk always involves two characteristics
Select one:
a. staffing and budget
b. fire fighting and crisis management
c. uncertainty and loss
d. known and unknown risks
Ans: c

The first step in project planning is to
Select one:
a. establish the objectives and scope
b. determine the budget
c. select a team organizational model
d. determine the project constraints
Ans: a

Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?
Select one:
a. allow senior staff members to correct errors
b. determining who introduced an error into a program
c. uncover errors in software work products
d. assess programmer productivity
Ans: c

Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps
Select one:
a. define, measure, control
b. analyze, improve, control
c. define, measure, analyze
d. analyze, design, verify
Ans: c

Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that should exist when a configuration management system is developed?
Select one:
a. component elements
b. human elements
c. process elements
d. validation elements
Ans: d

When software configuration management is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by the
Select one:
a. development team
b. quality assurance group
c. senior managers
d. testing specialists
Ans: b

The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the
Select one:
a. Closed Paradigm
b. Open Paradigm
c. Random Paradigm
d. Synchronous Paradigm
Ans: b

Hazard analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards that can cause
Select one:
a. an entire system to fail
b. cost overruns
c. project termination
d. schedule slippage
Ans: a

Object Oriented Analysis and Design (S2-14_SSZG514) Quiz 3

1.Which of the following can be tested

Select one or more:

a.Only Classes

b.Invalid inputs

c.Valid inputs

d.Events

Answer: b,c,d

2.What are GRASP patterns used for

Select one:

a.Implementing User interaction using a UI

b.Assigning Responsibility and Designing Interactions between classes

c.None of the above

d.Implementing the Input and Output interface Classes

Answer: b

3.What kind of interactions are best between the GUI and other classes

Select one or more:

a. A control class for every one of the UI elements

b. A control class for each usecase implementation

c. A Facade class which controls all interactions between the Domain classes and UI

d.All of the above

Answer: b,c

4.How does object A have visibility to another object B

Select one:

a.Object A has a reference to Object B

b.Object A and B are created for the same Usecase

c.Object A and B are created from the same class

d.None of the above

Answer: A

5.What are the main aspects of fulfilling Responsibility by a Class in Responsibility Driven Design

Select one:

a.Which other Classes the Class should be aware of.

b.What interactions must the Class have with other Classes.

c.What information must the Class know and what actions must a class do.

d.None of the above

Answer: c

6.What are the four common types of visibility between objects

Select one:

a.Attribute, Parameter, Local and Global visibility

b.Attribute, Parameter, Use case and User Interface

c. Use case, interface, subclasses  and User Interface

d.Parameter, interactions, subclasses  and User Interface

Answer:a

7.What are the main advantages of Low Coupling principle

Select one:

a.Low dependency,Low Bottlenecks, and increased reuse

b.Low dependency,Low change impact, and increased reuse

c.None of the above

d.Less number of messages,Low change impact, and increased reuse

Answer: b

8.How does OO testing differs from Procedural code testing

Select one:

a.None of the above

b.There are no variables to be tested

c.Unit testing is Class testing

d.There are no methods to be tested

Answer:c

9.Where does testing begin 

Select one:

a.Just before the final deployment

b.After the Design is final

c.None of the above

d.With the Object Oriented Analysis models

Answer: d

10.What are the four essential elements of a Design pattern

Select one:

a.Name, Problem, Solution and Consequences

b. Problem, Solution, Advantages and Disadvantages

c. Name, Problem, Solution and Linked patterns

d.Name, Solution, Advantages and Disadvantages

Answer:a

11.A Class with Low Cohesion has the following properties with respect to comprehension, maintaining and structure.

Select one:

a.Hard to comprehend, Easy to maintain, Robust and not affected by change

b.Hard to comprehend,  Easy to reuse,Easy to maintain and Delicate and constantly affected by change

c.Hard to reuse,Hard to maintain and  Not affected by change

d.Hard to comprehend, Hard to reuse,Hard to maintain and Delicate and constantly affected by change

Answer:d

12.What is not a Creator Principle about: Class A should create an Object of Class B

Select one:

a.Class A is a superclass of Class B

b.Class A aggregates Objects of Class B

c.Class A has initialization data for Objects of Class B

d.Class A aggregates Objects of Class B

Answer: a

13.Which of the properties are true for Test Driven Development 

Select one or more:

a.Don't write production code without first writing a failing unit test

b.Don't write more code than is sufficient to pass the test

c.None of the above

d.Don't write more of a test than is sufficient to fail

Answer:a,b,d

14. Which of the following  are true for Local Visibility from A to B

Select one or more:

a.B is a subclass of A

b.None of the above

c.Create a new local instance and assign it to a local variable

d.Assign the return object from a method invocation to a local variable

Answer:c,d

15.Parameter visibility is usually converted into

Select one:

a.Attribute visibility

b.Global visibility

c.None of the above

d. Local Visibility

Answer: a

Database Design and Applications (S2-14_SSZG518)

1.In a wait-for graph, an edge drawn from  transaction  T1  to  T2  indicates that-

Select one:

a.T1 reads a data item before  T2 reads the same.   

b.T2 waits on T1 (for some data item to be released).

c.T2 reads a data item before  T1 reads the same. 

d.T1 waits on T2 (for some data item to be released).

Answer:d

2.It is possible to construct a secondary index on a unique non-ordering attribute/field of a relation. 

Select one:

True

False

Answer: True

3.In a B+ tree, if the block size is 1024 Bytes,  record size is 148 Bytes,  key field length is 12 Bytes,  Block pointer length is 6 Bytes, the max. number of keys in each internal node of the B+ tree is___.

Select one:

a.57

b.58

c.56

d.55

Answer: 56

4.A transaction can abort/fail even after its entering into partially committed state.

Select one:

True

False

Answer: True

5.Which of the following actions is idempotent?

Select one:

a.both redo and undo

b.Redo 

c.Undo

d.none

Answer: b

6.Assume that we have 5246 index blocks in  the third level of a multilevel Indexing structure. If the Block size is 512 Bytes and the blocking factor for Index file is 40, then we need __ number of index blocks at 4th level. Assume unspanned records organization.

Select one:

a.13

b.132

c.11

d.26

Answer: b

7.In a precedence graph  schedules become nodes.

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

8.The concept of Checkpointing in database recovery avoids ___.

Select one:

a.Unnecessary  concurrency during the recovery process.

b.Unnecessary redo operations during the recovery process.

c.Early transaction failures during the recovery process.

d.Unnecessary locks during the recovery process.

Answer: b

9.We can have more than one clustering index for a give relation.      

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

10. Database Tuning is the activity that is performed after deploying the database and the related Applications.  

Select one:

True

False

Answer: True

11.If the order (p) of the B+ tree is 7, then the minimum number of keys in any internal node is-

Select one:

a.3

b.6

c.2

d.4

Answer: d

12.Assume a scenario, where we use Timestamp-based concurrency control protocol. Consider that a data item X has been written by 5  transaction, as mentioned below, with corresponding timestamps, in the same order-

 TS-235; TS-219; TS-240; TS-225; TS-237. 

 Then the Write Timestamp of the data item X is___. 

Select one:

a.235

b.219

c.240

d.237

Answer: c

13. If we have two transactions T1 and T2 in a schedule S, and if T2 reads a data item A before T1 reads it, then in the corresponding precedence graph, we can introduce an edge from T2 to T1.     

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

14. A transaction enters committed state immediately after__

Select one:

a.permanently writing the log to the Disk 

b.writing the updates to the log available in the buffer

c.executing the last operation   

d.Anytime

Answer: a

15.A Query Graph  gives/incorporates details about the order in which the operations are to be executed for a query. 

Select one:

True

False

Answer: b

16.If we have 18456 data blocks and 355 Index blocks in a Primary indexing scheme, then the number of block accesses needed to retrieve a record with given key value is____.

Select one:

a.12

b.11

c.10

d.9

Answer: c

17.In a B+ tree, we can find a pointer to the record with given key value,  at any level.

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

18.The Two-phase locking protocol   will always avoid/prevents deadlocks.  

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

19.In timestamp based concurrency control protocol,  we can apply shared and/or exclusive locks to data items.

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

20.In a multilevel Indexing scheme (with root), the number of block accesses required to access a record with given key value is dependent on___.

Select one:

a.Number of Index blocks in the first level

b.Number of data blocks

c.Number of index levels

d.fanout of the Index block

Answer: c

21. In shadow paging based recovery approach, modified data blocks of a file  are pointed to by the shadow page-table or shadow-page directory.  

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

22.If there are 32000 records, and the record size is 120 Bytes; and the block size is 512 Bytes. And if the records are ordered based on the key attribute. Then what is worst case number of block accesses required to access a record with given key value?    Hint: binary search can be applied on the key attribute value. Assume unspanned record organization.  Note: there is no Indexing is done.

Select one:

a.12

b.10

c.11

d.13

Answer: d

23.An Index created on non-ordering key-field is a Dense index.  

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

24.If the block size is 1024 Bytes, and we have 32678 records in a file and each record size is 132 Bytes, then the Blocking factor for Data file is_____. (Assume unspanned records organization).

Select one:

a.10

b.7

c.32

d.8

Answer: b

25.If a schedule S2 is conflict equivalent to another schedule S1;  and  schedule S3 is conflict equivalent to schedule S2, it does not imply that S1 and S3 are conflict equivalent.  

Select one:

True

False

Answer: False

Quiz 2 Software Project Management (S2-14_SSZG622)

1.One of the most important attributes for a software product metric is that it should be

Select one:

a.widely applicable

b.qualitative in nature

c.reliable over time

d.easy to compute

Answer: d

2.Which of the following is not a measure that can be collected from a Web application project?

Select one:

a.Customization index

b.Number of static web pages

c.Number of internal page links

d.Number of dynamic objects

Answer:a

3.Software feasibility is based on which of the following

Select one:

a.scope, constraints, market

b.technical prowess of the developers

c.business and marketing concerns

d.technology, finance, time, resources

Answer: d

4.The best indicator of progress on a software project is the completion of

Select one:

a.successful acceptance of project prototype by the customer

b.successful budget review meeting on time

c.defined engineering activity task

d.successful review of a defined software work product

Answer: d

5.While scheduling a project, effort validation is required for

Select one:

a.Work load of members

b.Checking size estimates

c.Competence of team

d.Timely completion

Answer: d

6.The software engineering environment (SEE) consists of

Select one:

a.Business environment

b.Development team culture

c.Software tools along with hardware environment

d.Software tools

Answer: c

7.Make/Buy decisions are usually not driven by

Select one:

a.Support concerns

b.Staff aspirations

c.Time to market

d.Cost of acquisition

Answer: b

8.Which of the following is not considered a stakeholder in the software process

Select one:

a.Customers

b.Sales people

c.Project managers

d.End users

Answer: b

9.The optimum duration for a project is at the point where

Select one:

a.Direct costs are the lowest

b.Direct costs equal indirect costs

c.Total project costs are the lowest

d.Indirect costs are the lowest

Answer: c

10.Which of following are advantages of using LOC(lines of code) as a size-oriented metric?

Select one:

a.LOC is easily computed

b.LOC can be computed early in the process

c.LOC is language dependent

d.LOC is language independent

Answer: a

11.The first step in project planning is to

Select one:

a.determine the budget

b.establish the objectives and scope

c.select a team organizational model

d.determine the project constraints

Answer: b

12.Empirical estimation models are typically based on

Select one:

a.regression model derived from historical project data

b.expert judgement based on past project experiences

c.trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients

d.refinement of expected value estimation

Answer: a

13.A task set is a collection of

Select one:

a.responsibilities, milestones, documents

b.milestones, deliverables, metrics

c.engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables

d.task assignments, cost estimates, metrics

Answer: c

14.Process indicators enable management to

Select one:

a.improve software process

b.adjust work flow

c.track potential risks

d.Assess the status of an on-going project

Answer: a

15.Which of these are NOT valid reasons for measuring software processes, products, and resources?

Select one:

a. To evaluate

b. To price

c. To characterize

d. To improve

Answer: b

16.The software equation can be used to show that

Select one:

a.Any deadline can be met by increasing team size

b.Cost may become prohibitive with schedule compression

c.Productivity goes up when deadline changes

d.Total effort is mainly driven by size in KLOC

Answer: a or d not sure

17.The president of a software company announces that new technologically advanced software will be available in one year. This is an example of reducing project duration by

Select one:

a.Imposed project deadlines

b.High overhead

c.Incentive contract

d.Unforeseen project delays

Answer: a

18.The purpose of earned value analysis is to

Select one:

a.provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress

b.provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress

c.set the price point for a software product based on development effort

d.determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity

Answer: a

19.FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

Select one:

a.process activities

b.software functions

c.information domain values

d.project schedule

Answer: c

20.One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to

Select one:

a.hide bad news from the project team members until things improve

b.give team members less control over process and technical decisions

c.give team members more control over process and technical decisions

d.reward programmers based on their productivity

Answer: c

DATA STRUCTURES & ALGORITHMS DESIGN(SS ZG519)

1.  For a binary tree if in-order traversal is = DGBAHEICF and pre-order = ABDGCEHIF. Its post-order traversal would be:

A: ABCDEFGHI

B: GCIEHABFD

C: GIHECFDBA

D: GDBHIEFCA

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: D

2. Which of the following statement is correct:

A: A max tree is always a complete binary tree.

B: A min heap can never be a complete binary tree.

C: A min heap can or cannot be a complete binary tree.

D: A max heap is always a complete binary tree.

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: D

3. A one thousand character long data file comprises of only 3 characters A, B and C in the occurrence frequency of  600, 300 and 100 respectively. If these characters are stored in 2, 3, and 4 bit long codes respectively what will be the saving as compared to ASCII storage?

A: 31.25%

B: 53.55%

C: 68.75%

D: 46.45%

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans:  C

4 . A Binary Search Tree is constructed using integers (in the given sequence): 98, 34, 100, 35, 97, 33, 0 and -12. The post-order traversal of this binary tree will be:

A: 0, -12, 33, 35, 97, 34, 100, 98

B: -12, 0, 33, 97, 35, 100, 34, 98

C: -12, 0, 33, 97, 35, 34, 100, 98

D: 98, 0, 35, 97, 33, 34, 100, -12

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: C

5. In a Binary Search Tree, if a node is deleted which has two sub-trees. After deletion, the following can replace the deleted node:

(1) Largest node on the left sub-tree of the deleted node.

(2) Smallest node on the left sub-tree of the deleted node.

(3) Smallest node on the right sub-tree of the deleted node.

(4) Largest node on the right sub-tree of the deleted node.

Select one:

 A. 1 and 2 only.

 B. 1 and 3 only

 C. 1 and 4 only.

 D. All of the above

Ans: B

Reference: “Deletion starategy is the following: replace the node being deleted with the largest node in the left subtree and then delete that largest node. By symmetry, the node being deleted can be swapped with the smallest node is the right subtree.”

http://www.cs.cmu.edu/~adamchik/15-121/lectures/Trees/trees.html

6. Which one of the following statement is correct about Weight Biased Leftist Trees (WBLT)?

A: If x is an internal node, its weight is 1 more than the sum of the weights of its children.

B: If x is an internal node, its weight is 1 more than the max of the weights of its left and right children.

C: If x is an internal node, its weight is 1 more than the min of the weights of its left and right children.

D: None of these.

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: A (Based on Rishab & Venkata SBP)

7. Given the infix expression as ( (A / (B-C+D)) * (E-A) *C). The postfix expression would be:

A: ABC-/D+EA-*C*

B: ABC-D+/EA-*C*

C: ABCD+/-EA*C*-

D: ABCD+/-EA-*C*

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: B

8. Which of the following statement is correct?

A: A full binary tree is always perfect binary tree also.

B: A complete binary tree is always full.

C: A perfect binary tree is always full and complete.

D: A left skewed binary tree is complete because all the children are on the left side.

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: C

9. Level-1 up Splay step is possible for a Splay node only when this node is at level-2 of the binary tree.

Select one:

 True

 False

Ans: True 

10. If there are 4 nodes in a binary tree. Total number of branches/links = x and out them y would be NULL branches. What are values of x and y respectively?

A: 3, 5

B: 8, 5

C: None of these

D: 4, 5

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: B

11. A student tries to solve the problem of optimum packing of big boxes with small boxes using binary search trees so that the big boxes' space is best utilized. He uses the best fit approach. The big boxes are equal in size and shape but their holding capacities are: A (9 Kg), B (15 Kg), C (12 Kg) and D (8 Kg). Small boxes are equal in size and shape but their weights are 10, 3, 2, 9, and 15 Kg respectively. After packing all the small boxes into big boxes, which is (are)  the box(es) left out with what unused capacity?

A: C (2 Kg), D (3 Kg)

B: D, 5 Kg

C: No box will be left out with unused capacity

D: None of the above

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: A (Based on Anju Abhi & Venkata SBP )

12. The in-order traversal of a Splay Tree is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and the pre-order traversal is 4, 2, 1, 3, 5. The last binary tree operation that was performed on this Splay tree was search(3). What will be the level order traversal of the Splay tree after this search?

A: 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

B: 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

C: 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

D: None of the above

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: B 

13. A min heap is constructed using integers (in the given sequence): 98, 34, 100, 35, 97, 33, 0 and -12.The level order traversal of this binary tree will be:

A: -12, 0, 33, 35, 97, 100, 98, 34

B: -12, 33, 0, 35, 97, 100, 34, 98

C: -12, 0, 33, 35, 97, 100, 34, 98

D: -12, 0, 35, 98, 97, 33, 100, 34

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: C

14. Individual operations are inexpensive in a Splay Tree but a sequence of operations is more expensive than a corresponding AVL tree.

Select one:

 True

 False

Ans: False

15. If a min heap is stored in an array. The array will be be automatically sorted in non-decreasing order.

Select one:

 True

 False

Ans: False

16. Which of the following statement is correct about Height Biased Leftist Trees (HBLT):

A: For any internal node x in HBLT,  shortest (x) = 1 + min { shortest(leftChild (x)), shortest(rightChild (x)) } 

B: For any internal node x in HBLT,  shortest (x) = 1 + max { shortest(leftChild (x)), shortest(rightChild (x)) }

C: For any internal node x in HBLT,  shortest (x) = min  { shortest(leftChild (x)), shortest(rightChild (x)) }

D: They will always be complete.

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: A

17. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A: HBLT are normally referred to as Leftist Trees.

B: There is no advantage of using leftist trees over heaps.

C: HBLT operations are analogous with the operations of Binary Search Tree. 

D: None of these.

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: A

18. It is not possible to come up with an algorithm to assign n jobs to m machines to finish the assignment as soon as possible because:

A: The algorithm will have a time complexity of non-deterministic polynomial.

B: There is no available data structure to attempt the assignment.

C: There is no way to verify the solution.

D: None of the above.

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans: A (based on Anju Abhi & rishab)

19. Which of the following statement is incorrect for a binary tree? i and h  >=1 and ^ is the exponent operator.

A: The maximum number of nodes on level i = 2^i-1

B: The maximum number of nodes on level i = 2^(i-1)

C: The maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height h is = 2^h-1

D: The number of nodes in a binary tree of height h is can be less than 2^h-1

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans:  A

20. MAR, MAY, NOV and AUG are added into an empty AVL search tree in the given sequence. After all the nodes are inserted, the post-order traversal of the balanced AVL tree will be:

A: MAR, MAY, NOV, AUG

B: NOV, MAY, MAR, AUG

C: AUG, MAR, NOV, MAY

D: AUG, MAR, MAY, NOV

Select one:

 A

 B

 C

 D

Ans:  C